Download NCLEX NCLEX-RN Sample Questions [Oct-2024]
Real NCLEX-RN Exam Questions and Answers FREE
Preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam is an essential part of becoming a registered nurse. Candidates are recommended to start preparing for the exam early in their nursing education to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to pass the exam. There are numerous resources available for candidates to prepare for the exam, including study materials, practice exams, and review courses. Candidates should also familiarize themselves with the format and content of the exam to reduce test anxiety and increase their chances of success.
NCLEX-RN exam is computerized and consists of multiple-choice questions that cover a wide range of nursing topics including patient care, health promotion, pharmacology, and ethical and legal issues in nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to assess the candidate's ability to apply critical thinking and clinical judgment to real-life nursing scenarios while also testing their knowledge of nursing theory and practice.
NCLEX-RN exam consists of multiple-choice questions that assess a candidate's knowledge of nursing practice, client needs, and nursing process. The questions are designed to be comprehensive and may cover a wide range of topics, including pharmacology, anatomy and physiology, and nursing procedures. NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, meaning that the difficulty of the questions adapts to the candidate's level of knowledge.
NEW QUESTION # 412
The mother of a child taking phenytoin will need to plan appropriate mouth care and gingival stimulation.
When tooth-brushing is contraindicated, the next most effective cleansing and gingival stimulation technique would be:
- A. Rinsing with baking soda
- B. Using a water pik
- C. Rinsing with water
- D. Rinsing with hydrogen peroxide
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This technique provides effective rinsing and gingival stimulation. (B) This technique does not provide gingival stimulation. (C) This technique provides effective rinsing but not gingival stimulation. Using peroxide is not pleasant for the child. (D) This technique provides effective rinsing but not gingival stimulation.
NEW QUESTION # 413
A 27-year-old primigravida stated that she got up from the chair to fix dinner and bright red blood was running down her legs. She denies any pain previously or currently. The client is very concerned about whether her baby will be all right. Her vital signs include P 120 bpm, respirations 26 breaths/min, BP 104/58 mm Hg, temperature 98.2_F, and fetal heart rate 146 bpm. Laboratory findings revealed hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL, hematocrit 26%, and coagulation studies within normal range. On admission, the peripad she wore was noted to be half saturated with bright red blood. A medical diagnosis of placenta previa is made. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client would be:
- A. Alteration in parenting related to potential fetal injury
- B. Potential for fluid volume excess related to fluid resuscitation
- C. Anxiety related to threat to self
- D. Decreased cardiac output related to excessive bleeding
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Based on the client's history, presence of bright red vaginal bleeding, and hemoglobin value on admission, the priority nursing diagnosis would be decreased cardiac output related to excessive bleeding. (B) This nursing diagnosis is a potential problem that does not exist at the present time, and therefore is not the priority problem. (C) The client's expressed anxiety is for her child. The fetus will remain physiologically safe if the decreased cardiac output is resolved. (D) Initial spontaneous bleeding with placenta previa is rarely life threatening to the mother or the fetus. Delivery of the fetus will be postponed until fetal maturity is achieved and survival is likely.
NEW QUESTION # 414
A gravida 2 para 1 client is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. While she receives magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) therapy, the nurse knows it is safe to repeat the dosage if:
- A. Urine output is 20 mL/hr
- B. Respirations are>16 breaths/min
- C. MgSO4serum levels are>15 mg/dL
- D. Deep tendon reflexes are absent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) MgSO4is a central nervous system depressant. Loss of reflexes is often the first sign of developing toxicity. (B) Urinary output at <25 mL/hr or 100 mL in 4 hours may result in the accumulation of toxic levels of magnesium. (C) The therapeutic serum range for MgSO4is 6-8 mg/dL. Higher levels indicate toxicity.
(D) Respirations of>16 breaths/min indicate that toxic levels of magnesium have not been reached.
Medication administration would be safe.
NEW QUESTION # 415
The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release?
- A. Propranolol (Inderal)
- B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
- C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
- D. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Norepinephrine's side effects are primarily related to safe, effective care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and bradycardia. (B) Dobutamine's side effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolol's side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and inhibiting insulin release.
Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time.
NEW QUESTION # 416
A client is now pregnant for the second time. Her first child weighed 4536 g at delivery. The client's glucose tolerance test shows elevated blood sugar levels. Because she only shows signs of diabetes when she is pregnant, she is classified as having:
- A. Type II diabetes mellitus
- B. Insulin-dependent diabetes
- C. Type I diabetes mellitus
- D. Gestational diabetes mellitus
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, also known as type I diabetes, usually appears before the age of
30 years with an abrupt onset of symptoms requiring insulin for management. It is not related to onset during pregnancy. (B) Non-insulin-dependent diabetes (type II diabetes) usually appears in older adults. It has a slow onset and progression of symptoms. (C) This type of diabetes is the same as insulin-dependent diabetes. (D) Gestational diabetes mellitus has its onset of symptoms during pregnancy and usually disappears after delivery. These symptoms are usually mild and not life threatening, although they are associated with increased fetal morbidity and other fetal complications.
NEW QUESTION # 417
Respiratory function is altered in a 16-year-old asthmatic. Which of the following is the cause of this alteration?
- A. Paradoxical movements of the chest wall
- B. Continuous changes in respiratory rate and depth
- C. Increased airway resistance
- D. Altered surfactant production
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Altered surfactant production is found in sudden infant death syndrome. (B) Paradoxical breathing occurs when a negative intrathoracic pressure is transmitted to the abdomen by a weakened, poorly functioning diaphragm. (C) Asthma is characterized by spasm and constriction of the airways resulting in increased resistance to airflow. (D) If the pulmonary tree is obstructed for any reason, inspired air has difficulty overcoming the resistance and getting out. The rate of respiration increases in order to compensate, thus increasing air exchange.
NEW QUESTION # 418
Parents should be taught not to prop the bottle when feeding their infants. In addition to the risk of choking, it puts the infant at risk for:
- A. Tonsillitis
- B. Otitis media
- C. Conjunctivitis
- D. Asthma
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A)
Because the eustachian tube is short and straight in the infant, formula that pools in the back of the throat attacks bacteria which can enter the middle ear and cause an infection.
(B)
Asthma is not associated with propping the bottle. (C) Conjunctivitis is an eye infection and not associated with propping the bottle. (D) Tonsillitis is usually a result of pharyngitis and not propping the bottle.
NEW QUESTION # 419
The nurse in the mental health center is instructing a depressed client about the dietary restrictions necessary in taking her medication, which is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. Which of the following is she restricting from the client's diet?
- A. Aged cheese
- B. Cream cheese
- C. Yeast bread
- D. Fresh fruits
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Cream cheese does not contain tyramine, which might cause a hypertensive crisis. (B) Fresh fruits do not contain tyramine, which might cause a hypertensive crisis. (C) Aged or matured cheese combined with a monoamine oxidase predisposes the client to a hypertensive crisis. (D) Bread products raised with yeast do not contain tyramine.
NEW QUESTION # 420
A female client comes for her second prenatal visit. The nurse-midwife tells her, "Your blood tests reveal that you do not show immunity to the German measles." Which notation will the nurse include in her plan of care for the client? "Will need . . .
- A. Rubella vaccine at the next visit"
- B. Rh-immune globulin at the next visit"
- C. Rh-immune globulin within 3 days of delivery"
- D. Rubella vaccine after delivery on the day of discharge"
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Rh immune globulin is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the maternal Rh immune response. (B) Rh immune globulin is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the maternal Rh immune response. (C) The rubella vaccine is not given during pregnancy because of its teratogenicity. (D) Nonimmune mothers are vaccinated early in the postpartum period to prevent future infection with the rubella virus.
NEW QUESTION # 421
A violent client remains in restraints for several hours. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate while he is in restraints?
- A. Give fluids if the client requests them.
- B. Measure vital signs at least every 4 hours.
- C. Release restraints every 2 hours for client to exercise.
- D. Assess skin integrity and circulation of extremities before applying restraints and as they are removed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Fluids (nourishment) should be offered at regular intervals whether the client requests (or refuses) them or not. (B) Skin integrity and circulation of the extremities should be checked regularly while the client is restrained, not only before restraints are applied and after they are removed. (C) Vital signs should be checked at least every 2 hours. If the client remains agitated in restraints, vital signs should be monitored even more closely, perhaps every 1-2 hours. (D) Restraints should be released every 2 hours for exercise, one extremity at a time, to maintain muscle tone, skin and joint integrity, and circulation.
NEW QUESTION # 422
A 45-year-old male client was admitted to a chemical dependency treatment center following legal problems related to alcohol abuse. He states, "I know that alcohol is a problem for some people, but I can stop whenever I want to. I'm never sick or miss work, and no one can complain about me." During the initial assessment, the best response by the nurse would be:
- A. "It's good that you can stop drinking when you want to."
- B. "If you can stop drinking when you want to, why don't you stop?"
- C. "I understand it took strength to admit yourself to the unit, and I will do my part to help you to stay alcohol- free."
- D. "The fact is you are an alcoholic or you wouldn't be here."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Direct confrontation initially is nontherapeutic and may result in the client becoming frustrated and wanting to leave. (B) A positive, supportive attitude builds trust, and identifying positive strength raises self- esteem. Offering help allows the client to feel that he is not alone in dealing with problems. (C) Asking the client why or to give an explanation for his behavior puts him in a position of having to justify his behavior to the nurse. (D) Giving approval or placing a value on feelings or a behavior may limit the client's freedom to behave in a way that may displease another. This response may lead to seeking praise instead of progress.
NEW QUESTION # 423
Nursing care for the parents of a child with a congenital heart defect would include:
- A. Expressing to the parents after the corrective surgery has been completed successfully that all their grief feelings will resolve
- B. Encouraging the parents not to tell the child about the seriousness of the congenital heart defect, so the child will function as normally as possible
- C. Identifying anger and resentment as destructive emotions that serve no purpose
- D. Acknowledging the fear and concern surrounding their child's health and assisting the parents through the grieving process as they mourn the loss of their fantasized healthy child
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) It is important to discuss with parents the need to treat the child as they would any other children, but they must be truthful and honest with the child about the heart defect. As the child grows older, explanations can go into greater depth. (B) Parents of children with congenital heart defects go through a grieving process over the loss of their "healthy" child. The nurse needs to recognize these feelings and give the parents a role in the child's care when they are ready. (C) Anger and resentment are normal feelings that must be dealt with appropriately. (D) Parents may go through a second grieving process after the repair of the cardiac defect. During this grieving period, they mourn the loss of the "defective" child who now may be essentially "normal."
NEW QUESTION # 424
A schizophrenic client who is experiencing thoughts of having special powers states that "I am a messenger from another planet and can rule the earth." The nurse assesses this behavior as:
- A. Delusions of grandeur
- B. Ideas of reference
- C. Thought broadcasting
- D. Delusions of persecution
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Clients experiencing ideas of reference believe that information from the environment (e.g., the television) is referring to them. (B) Clients experiencing delusions of persecution believe that others in the environment are plotting against them. (C) Clients experiencing thought broadcasting perceive that others can hear their thoughts. (D) Clients experiencing delusions of grandeur think that they are omnipotent and have superhuman powers.
NEW QUESTION # 425
A 50-year-old male client is to receive chemotherapy. The physician's orders include antiemetics. When planning his care, the nurse should take into consideration that antiemetics are best administered in the following way:
- A. Give antiemetics when nausea is experienced and continue on a regular schedule for 12-24 hours.
- B. Give antiemetics prior to the client receiving chemotherapy and continue on a regular basis for at least24-48 hours after chemotherapy.
- C. Give antiemetics one at a time because combinations of antiemetics cause overwhelming side effects.
- D. Give antiemetics intermittently during the entire course of chemotherapy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Nausea is more difficult to control if antiemetics are withheld until nausea is experienced. (B) Antiemetics should be given prophylactically at the beginning of chemotherapy and continued on an around-the-clock basis to prevent nausea. (C) Combinations of antiemetics give the best control for nausea by blocking various causes of nausea induced by chemotherapy. (D) Antiemetics should be given around the clock during the course of chemotherapy. This prevents nausea from developing and prevents anticipatory nausea during subsequent chemotherapy administrations.
NEW QUESTION # 426
A 26-year-old client is in a treatment center for aprazolam (Xanax) abuse and continues to manifest moderate levels of anxiety 3 weeks into the rehabilitation program, often requesting medication for "his nerves." Included in the client's plan of care is to identify alternate methods of coping with stress and anxiety other than use of medication. After intervening with assistance in stress reduction techniques, identifying feelings and past coping, the nurse evaluates the outcome as being met if:
- A. Client has remained substance free during hospitalization and is discharged
- B. Client demonstrates use of exercise or physical activity to handle nervous energy following conflicts of everyday life
- C. Client is able to verbalize effects of substance abuse on the body
- D. Client promises that he will not abuse aprazolam after discharge
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This client response does not address stress reduction techniques. Verbal response focuses only on the problem. (B) Exercise or physical activity is a common strategy or coping technique used to reduce stress and anxiety. (C) Verbalizing effects of substance abuse on the body may help with insight and break through denial, but it is not a strategy to reduce anxiety. (D)Remaining substance-free does indicate motivation to change lifestyle of substance abuse or dependence, and it is not a stress reduction strategy in itself.
NEW QUESTION # 427
A male client is diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. He has been on dialysis for several years. He is experiencing symptoms such as numbness of the lips, muscle weakness, carpopedal spasms, and wheezing.
Given the client's symptoms, nursing assessment would focus on:
- A. Detection of tetany
- B. Detection of premature cataract formation
- C. Detection of hypocalcemia to prevent seizures
- D. Evidence of depression
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Assessment should focus on detection of tetany, which is the most common symptom of hypoparathyroidism. Left undetected and untreated, tetany resulting from hypocalcemia can progress to seizures. (B) Hypocalcemia is difficult to detect on nursing assessment alone. Abdominal cramping may be an indication of hypocalcemia, but laboratory data are required to confirm diagnosis. (C) Depression can be a symptom of hypoparathyroidism, but it is not definitive. (D) Premature cataract formation can occur, but it also is not specific to parathyroidism and poses no immediate danger to the client.
NEW QUESTION # 428
The mother of a client is apprehensive about taking home her 2 year old who was diagnosed with asthma after being admitted to the emergency room with difficulty breathing and cyanosis. She asks the nurse what symptoms she should look for so that this problem will not happen again. The nurse instructs her to watch for the following early symptoms:
- A. Fever, cough, paleness, and wheezing
- B. Fatigue, dark circles under the eyes, changes in breathing pattern, glassy eyes, and moodiness
- C. Changes in breathing pattern, moodiness, fatigue, and edema of eyes
- D. Fever, runny nose, and hyperactivity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The child with asthma may not have fever unless there is an underlying infection. (B) Edema of the eyes will not be present because the child with asthma is more likely to have dehydration related to excessive water loss during the work of breathing. (C) All of these symptoms indicate decreased oxygenation and are early symptoms of asthma. (D) Coughing and wheezing are not early signs of difficulty.
NEW QUESTION # 429
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