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NEW QUESTION 168
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?
- A. Perform a vulnerability assessment.
- B. Measure the change in inherent risk.
- C. Conduct a compliance check against standards.
- D. Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 169
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:
- A. aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units
- B. minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment
- C. provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions
- D. build a threat profile of the organization for management review
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 170
The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:
- A. the ability to mitigate risk.
- B. to achieve the desired level of maturity.
- C. the cost of the control.
- D. the materiality of the risk.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 171
Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?
- A. Number of changes in access granted to users.
- B. Average time to grant access privileges.
- C. Average number of access privilege exceptions.
- D. Number and type of locked obsolete accounts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 172
Which of the following approaches to bring you own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?
- A. Implement remote monitoring
- B. Enable data wipe capabilities
- C. Enforce strong passwords and data encryption
- D. Penetration testing and session timeouts
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 173
Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?
- A. Key risk indicator (KRI)
- B. Risk appetite
- C. Risk tolerance
- D. Inherent risk
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 174
Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?
- A. Risk appetite
- B. Risk magnitude
- C. Cost-benefit analysis
- D. Incident probability
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 175
An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
- A. Ensure the business is aware of the risk.
- B. Consider providing additional system resources to this job.
- C. Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.
- D. Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 176
David is the project manager of HRC project. He concluded while HRC project is in process that if he adopts e-commerce, his project can be more fruitful. But he did not engaged in electronic commerce (e-commerce) so that he would escape from risk associated with that line of business. What type of risk response had he adopted?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Enhance
- C. Avoidance
- D. Exploit
Answer: C
Explanation:
As David did not engaged in e-commerce in order to avoid risk, hence he is following risk avoidance strategy.
NEW QUESTION 177
Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?
- A. Sending notifications when near storage quota
- B. Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)
- C. Implementing record retention tools and techniques
- D. Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 178
Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?
- A. A review of the awareness program
- B. Disciplinary action
- C. A control self-assessment
- D. Root cause analysis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 179
Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST
- A. reallocate risk response resources.
- B. review the key risk indicators.
- C. update the risk register
- D. conduct a risk analysis.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 180
Which of the following is the BEST way of managing risk inherent to wireless network?
- A. Require that the every host that connect to this network have a well-tested recovery plan
- B. Enable auditing on every connection to the wireless network
- C. Enabling auditing on every host that connects to a wireless network
- D. Require private, key-based encryption to connect to the wireless network
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As preventive control and prevention is preferred over detection and recovery, therefore, private and key- based encryption should be adopted for managing risks.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: As explained in above section preventive control and prevention is preferred over detection and recovery, hence these are less preferred way.
NEW QUESTION 181
Which of the following is the BEST method for discovering high-impact risk types?
- A. Delphi technique
- B. Quantitative risk analysis
- C. Qualitative risk analysis
- D. Failure modes and effects analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Failure modes and effects analysis is used in discovering high-impact risk types.
FMEA:
* Is one of the tools used within the Six Sigma methodology to design and implement a robust process to:
- Identify failure modes
- Establish a risk priority so that corrective actions can be put in place to address and reduce the risk
- Helps in identifying and documenting where in the process the source of the failure impacts the (internal or external) customer
- Is used to determine failure modes and assess risk posed by the process and thus, to the enterprise as a whole' Incorrect Answers:
A, D: These two are the methods of analyzing risk, but not specifically for high-impact risk types. Hence is not the best answer.
B: Delphi is a technique to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a question:
and their inputs are organized according to their contents. The collected responses are sent back to these experts for further input, addition, and comments. The final list of risks in the project is prepared after that. The participants in this technique are anonymous and therefore it helps prevent a person from unduly influencing the others in the group. The Delphi technique helps in reaching the consensus quickly.
NEW QUESTION 182
Which of the following characteristics of risk controls can be defined as under?
"The separation of controls in the production environment rather than the separation in the design and implementation of the risk"
- A. Distinct
- B. Trusted source
- C. Independent
- D. Secure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
A control or countermeasure which does not overlap in its performance with another control or countermeasure is considered as distinct. Hence the separation of controls in the production environment rather than the separation in the design and implementation of the risk refers to distinct.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Trusted source refers to the commitment of the people designing, implementing, and maintenance of the control towards the security policy.
B: Secure controls refers to the activities ability to protect from exploitation or attack.
D: The separation in design, implementation, and maintenance of controls or countermeasures are refer to as independent. Hence this answer is not valid.
NEW QUESTION 183
Which of the following is NOT true for effective risk communication?
- A. Risk information must be known and understood by all stakeholders.
- B. Use of technical terms of risk
- C. Explanation:
For effective communication, information communicated should not inundate the recipients. All ground rules of good communication apply to communication on risk. This includes the avoidance of jargon and technical terms regarding risk because the intended audiences are generally not deeply technologically skilled. Hence use of technical terms is avoided for effective communication - D. Any communication on risk must be relevant
- E. For each risk, critical moments exist between its origination and its potential business consequence
Answer: B
Explanation:
C, and D are incorrect. These all are true for effective risk communication. For effective risk communication the risk information should be clear, concise, useful and timely. Risk information must be known and understood by all the stakeholders. Information or communication should not overwhelm the recipients. This includes the avoidance of technical terms regarding risk because the intended audiences are generally not much technologically skilled. Any communication on risk must be relevant. Technical information that is too detailed or is sent to inappropriate parties will hinder, rather than enable, a clear view of risk. For each risk, critical moments exist between its origination and its potential business consequence. Information should also be aimed at the correct target audience and available on need-to-know basis. Hence for effective risk communication risk information should be: Clear Concise Useful Timely given Aimed at the correct audience Available on need-to-know basis
NEW QUESTION 184
A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
- A. Inform internal audit.
- B. Conduct an immediate risk assessment
- C. Perform a root cause analysis
- D. invoke the established incident response plan.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 185
Adrian is a project manager for a new project using a technology that has recently been released and there's relatively little information about the technology. Initial testing of the technology makes the use of it look promising, but there's still uncertainty as to the longevity and reliability of the technology. Adrian wants to consider the technology factors a risk for her project. Where should she document the risks associated with this technology so she can track the risk status and responses?
- A. Risk low-level watch list
- B. is incorrect. The project scope statement does document initially defined risks but it is
not a place that will record risks responses and status of risks. - C. Project scope statement
- D. is incorrect. The project charter does not define risks.
- E. Risk register
- F. Project charter
- G. Explanation:
A risk register is an inventory of risks and exposure associated with those risks. Risks are
commonly found in project management practices, and provide information to identify, analyze,
and manage risks. Typically a risk register contains:
A description of the risk
The impact should this event actually occur
The probability of its occurrence
Risk Score (the multiplication of Probability and Impact)
A summary of the planned response should the event occur
A summary of the mitigation (the actions taken in advance to reduce the probability and/or impact
of the event)
Ranking of risks by Risk Score so as to highlight the highest priority risks to all involved.
It records the initial risks, the potential responses, and tracks the status of each identified risk in
the project.
Answer: B,D,E,G
Explanation:
is incorrect. The risk low-level watch list is for identified risks that have low impact and
low probability in the project.
NEW QUESTION 186
Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?
- A. Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.
- B. Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.
- C. Obtain vendor references from third parties.
- D. Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 187
If one says that the particular control or monitoring tool is sustainable, then it refers to what ability?
- A. The ability to adapt as new elements are added to the environment
- B. The ability to ensure the control remains in place when it fails
- C. The ability to be applied in same manner throughout the organization
- D. The ability to protect itself from exploitation or attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sustainability of the controls or monitoring tools refers to its ability to function as expected over time or when changes are made to the environment.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Sustainability ensures that controls changes with the conditions, so as not to fail in any circumstances.
Hence this in not a valid answer.
C: This is not a valid answer.
D: This is not a valid definition for defining sustainability of a tool.
NEW QUESTION 188
Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?
- A. Risk responsibilities are addressed
- B. Risk-oriented tasks are defined
- C. Risk-related information is communicated
- D. Business process risk is analyzed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 189
An organization is implementing encryption for data at rest to reduce the risk associated with unauthorized access. Which of the following MUST be considered to assess the residual risk?
- A. Data retention requirements
- B. Cloud storage architecture
- C. Data destruction requirements
- D. Key management
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 190
Which of the following is the MOST effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication?
- A. A false sense of confidence at the top on the degree of actual exposure related to IT and lack of a well- understood direction for risk management from the top down
- B. Existence of a blame culture
- C. Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies
- D. The perception that the enterprise is trying to cover up known risk from stakeholders
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Blame culture should be avoided. It is the most effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication. In a blame culture, business units tend to point the finger at IT when projects are not delivered on time or do not meet expectations. In doing so, they fail to realize how the business unit's involvement up front affects project success. In extreme cases, the business unit may assign blame for a failure to meet the expectations that the unit never clearly communicated. Executive leadership must identify and quickly control a blame culture if collaboration is to be fostered throughout the enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
B: This is the consequence of poor risk communication, not the inhibitor of effective communication.
D: Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies is an inhibitor of effective communication, but is not a prominent as existence of blame culture.
NEW QUESTION 191
Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?
- A. information security manager
- B. Control owner
- C. Risk owner
- D. Risk manager
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 192
Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
- A. A decrease in the number of key controls
- B. An increase in residual risk
- C. Changes in control design
- D. Changes in control ownership
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 193
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Exam Syllabus
The ISACA CRISC exam is aimed at those professionals who want to build a career in the field of IT and, in particular, in the risk management domain. The test validates that the candidates possess the basic knowledge and skills in the area of risk and information systems control. The topics covered in the exam are highlighted below:
Information Technology Risk Identification: 27%
- Gather and analyze information, such as existing documentation to identify possible IT risk or its impact on the business operations and objectives of an organization;
- Partner in developing a risk awareness program and carry out the required training to educate the stakeholders on the risk potential and promote the organizational risk-aware culture;
- Develop in-depth IT risk scenarios according to available data to establish potential effects on the enterprise objectives and operations;
- Identify the domain of IT risk and contribute to the IT risk management strategy execution to support the business objectives while aligning with the enterprise risk management strategy;
- Recognize risk appetite and tolerance as defined by the key stakeholders and senior leadership to align with the business objectives.
- Create an IT risk register for documenting an identified IT risk scenario and incorporate the same in the risk profile of the enterprise;
- Identify possible vulnerabilities and threats to people, process, and technology of an organization;
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