350-701 Dumps - Grab Out For [NEW-2022] Cisco Exam
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How to schedule Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
- Select Proctored Exams and enter the exam number 350-701
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- Follow the prompts to register
Available Certification Paths
The Cisco SCOR 350-701 exam brings one the Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Core certificate. Also, it will take candidates closer to obtaining the CCNP Security and the CCIE Security certifications. To earn the first one, applicant should obtain the passing score in any of the six offered concentration tests. The second one requires students to pass the CCIE Security v6.0 lab exam. This certification is for candidates who want to prove they are experts in implementing and operating Cisco security technologies.
NEW QUESTION 137
A Cisco ESA administrator has been tasked with configuring the Cisco ESA to ensure there are no viruses before quarantined emails are delivered. In addition, delivery of mail from known bad mail servers must be prevented. Which two actions must be taken in order to meet these requirements? (Choose two)
- A. Scan quarantined emails using AntiVirus signatures
- B. Enable a message tracking service
- C. Use outbreak filters from SenderBase
- D. Deploy the Cisco ESA in the DMZ
- E. Configure a recipient access table
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
We should scan emails using AntiVirus signatures to make sure there are no viruses attached in emails.
Note: A virus signature is the fingerprint of a virus. It is a set of unique data, or bits of code, that allow it to be identified. Antivirus software uses a virus signature to find a virus in a computer file system, allowing to detect, quarantine, and remove the virus.
SenderBase is an email reputation service designed to help email administrators research senders, identify legitimate sources of email, and block spammers. When the Cisco ESA receives messages from known or highly reputable senders, it delivers them directly to the end user without any content scanning. However, when the Cisco ESA receives email messages from unknown or less reputable senders, it performs antispam and antivirus scanning.
We should scan emails using AntiVirus signatures to make sure there are no viruses attached in emails.
Note: A virus signature is the fingerprint of a virus. It is a set of unique data, or bits of code, that allow it to be identified. Antivirus software uses a virus signature to find a virus in a computer file system, allowing to detect, quarantine, and remove the virus.
SenderBase is an email reputation service designed to help email administrators research senders, identify legitimate sources of email, and block spammers. When the Cisco ESA receives messages from known or highly reputable senders, it delivers them directly to the end user without any content scanning. However, when the Cisco ESA receives email messages from unknown or less reputable senders, it performs antispam and antivirus scanning.
We should scan emails using AntiVirus signatures to make sure there are no viruses attached in emails.
Note: A virus signature is the fingerprint of a virus. It is a set of unique data, or bits of code, that allow it to be identified. Antivirus software uses a virus signature to find a virus in a computer file system, allowing to detect, quarantine, and remove the virus.
SenderBase is an email reputation service designed to help email administrators research senders, identify legitimate sources of email, and block spammers. When the Cisco ESA receives messages from known or highly reputable senders, it delivers them directly to the end user without any content scanning. However, when the Cisco ESA receives email messages from unknown or less reputable senders, it performs antispam and antivirus scanning.
Reference:
b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_0100100.html
-> Therefore Outbreak filters can be used to block emails from bad mail servers.
Web servers and email gateways are generally located in the DMZ so
Note: The recipient access table (RAT), not to be confused with remote-access Trojan (also RAT), is a Cisco ESA term that defines which recipients are accepted by a public listener.
b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_0100100.html
-> Therefore Outbreak filters can be used to block emails from bad mail servers.
Web servers and email gateways are generally located in the DMZ so
b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_0100100.html
-> Therefore Outbreak filters can be used to block emails from bad mail servers.
Web servers and email gateways are generally located in the DMZ so
Note: The recipient access table (RAT), not to be confused with remote-access Trojan (also RAT), is a Cisco ESA term that defines which recipients are accepted by a public listener.
NEW QUESTION 138
What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?
- A. It tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.
- B. Its events match all traffic classes in parallel.
- C. It provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.
- D. It tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide a stateful, IP flow tracking method that exports only those records that indicate significant events in a flow. The significant events that are tracked include flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied (excluding those flows that are denied by EtherType ACLs). Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/general/asa-general-cli/ monitor-nsel.html The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide a stateful, IP flow tracking method that exports only those records that indicate significant events in a flow.
The significant events that are tracked include flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied (excluding those flows that are denied by EtherType ACLs).
Explanation The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide a stateful, IP flow tracking method that exports only those records that indicate significant events in a flow. The significant events that are tracked include flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied (excluding those flows that are denied by EtherType ACLs). Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/general/asa-general-cli/ monitor-nsel.html
NEW QUESTION 139
When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to input the command crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0. The administrator is not sure what the IP addressing in this command issued for. What would be the effect of changing the IP address from 0.0.0.0 to 1.2.3.4?
- A. The address that will be used as the crypto validation authority
- B. The remote connection will only be allowed from 1.2.3.4
- C. All IP addresses other than 1.2.3.4 will be allowed
- D. The key server that is managing the keys for the connection will be at 1.2.3.4
Answer: B
Explanation:
The command crypto isakmp key cisco address 1.2.3.4 authenticates the IP address of the 1.2.3.4 peer by using the key cisco. The address of "0.0.0.0" will authenticate any address with this key.
NEW QUESTION 140
What must be configured in Cisco ISE to enforce reauthentication of an endpoint session when an endpoint is deleted from an identity group?
- A. CoA
- B. external identity source
- C. SNMP probe
- D. posture assessment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco ISE allows a global configuration to issue a Change of Authorization (CoA) in the Profiler Configuration page that enables the profiling service with more control over endpoints that are already authenticated.
One of the settings to configure the CoA type is "Reauth". This option is used to enforce reauthentication of an already authenticated endpoint when it is profiled.
Cisco ISE allows a global configuration to issue a Change of Authorization (CoA) in the Profiler Configuration page that enables the profiling service with more control over endpoints that are already authenticated.
One of the settings to configure the CoA type is "Reauth". This option is used to enforce reauthentication of an already authenticated endpoint when it is profiled.
Cisco ISE allows a global configuration to issue a Change of Authorization (CoA) in the Profiler Configuration page that enables the profiling service with more control over endpoints that are already authenticated.
One of the settings to configure the CoA type is "Reauth". This option is used to enforce reauthentication of an already authenticated endpoint when it is profiled.
Reference:
b_ise_admin_guide_sample_chapter_010101.html
b_ise_admin_guide_sample_chapter_010101.html
NEW QUESTION 141
What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)
- A. simple custom detections
- B. blocked ports
- C. allowed applications
- D. URL
- E. command and control
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints offers a variety of lists, referred to as Outbreak Control, that allow you to customize it to your needs. The main lists are: Simple Custom Detections, Blocked Applications, Allowed Applications, Advanced Custom Detections, and IP Blocked and Allowed Lists.
A Simple Custom Detection list is similar to a blocked list. These are files that you want to detect and quarantine.
Allowed applications lists are for files you never want to convict. Some examples are a custom application that is detected by a generic engine or a standard image that you use throughout the company Reference: https://docs.amp.cisco.com/AMP%20for%20Endpoints%20User%20Guide.pdf Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints offers a variety of lists, referred to as Outbreak Control, that allow you to customize it to your needs. The main lists are: Simple Custom Detections, Blocked Applications, Allowed Applications, Advanced Custom Detections, and IP Blocked and Allowed Lists.
A Simple Custom Detection list is similar to a blocked list. These are files that you want to detect and quarantine.
Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints offers a variety of lists, referred to as Outbreak Control, that allow you to customize it to your needs. The main lists are: Simple Custom Detections, Blocked Applications, Allowed Applications, Advanced Custom Detections, and IP Blocked and Allowed Lists.
A Simple Custom Detection list is similar to a blocked list. These are files that you want to detect and quarantine.
Allowed applications lists are for files you never want to convict. Some examples are a custom application that is detected by a generic engine or a standard image that you use throughout the company Reference: https://docs.amp.cisco.com/AMP%20for%20Endpoints%20User%20Guide.pdf
NEW QUESTION 142
How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?
- A. up to 16
- B. up to 2
- C. up to 8
- D. up to 4
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 143
Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?
- A. unknown
- B. noncompliant
- C. compliant
- D. authorized
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 144
What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?
- A. Cisco Firepower natively provides intrusion prevention capabilities while Cisco ASA does not.
- B. Cisco Firepower provides identity-based access control while Cisco ASA does not.
- C. Cisco ASA provides SSL inspection while Cisco Firepower does not.
- D. Cisco ASA provides access control while Cisco Firepower does not.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 145
What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?
- A. It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.
- B. It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.
- C. It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.
- D. It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/ b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01011.html
NEW QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?
- A. number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out
- B. privilege level for an authorized user to this router
- C. interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts
- D. access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 147
What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?
- A. Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.
- B. Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.
- C. Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level within the interval.
- D. Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 148
An organization configures Cisco Umbrella to be used for its DNS services. The organization must be able to block traffic based on the subnet that the endpoint is on but it sees only the requests from its public IP address instead of each internal IP address. What must be done to resolve this issue?
- A. Set up a Cisco Umbrella virtual appliance to internally field the requests and see the traffic of each IP address
- B. Configure an internal domain within Cisco Umbrella to help identify each address and create policy from the domains
- C. Use the tenant control features to identify each subnet being used and track the connections within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard
- D. Install the Microsoft Active Directory Connector to give IP address information stitched to the requests in the Cisco Umbrella dashboard
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 149
Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 150
An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?
- A. Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard
- B. storm control
- C. embedded event monitoring
- D. access control lists
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation
Storm control prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm on one of the physical interfaces. A LAN storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. Errors in the protocol-stack implementation, mistakes in network configurations, or users issuing a denial-of-service attack can cause a storm.
By using the "storm-control broadcast level [falling-threshold]" we can limit the broadcast traffic on the switch.
NEW QUESTION 151
What is a difference between GETVPN and IPsec?
- A. GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub
- B. GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1
- C. GETVPN provides key management and security association management
- D. GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 152
How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?
- A. It delivers visibility and threat detection.
- B. It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.
- C. It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.
- D. It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.content.shi.com/SHIcom/ContentAttachmentImages/SharedResources/FBLP/Cisco/ Cisco-091919-Simple-IT-Whitepaper.pdf
NEW QUESTION 153
Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?
- A. LDAP
- B. Internal Database
- C. RSA SecureID
- D. Active Directory
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 154
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Exam Details
The Cisco 350-701 test has the allocated duration of 120 minutes. The vendor doesn’t publish the exact number of questions and their formats prior to the exam date. However, according to the experience of the former test takers, the exam contains from 90 to 110 questions. The test is delivered in Japanese and English. The candidates can choose to sit for the exam in person at one of the authorized testing centers or take it via online proctoring. Each student is required to pay the registration fee of $400 to schedule the exam. This applies to a single delivery of the test. In case if one fails the first attempt, he or she will have to wait for 5 calendar days and pay another fee before retaking the exam.
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