
[2025] CCSK All-in-One Exam Guide Practice To your CCSK Exam!
Preparations of CCSK Exam 2025 Cloud Security Knowledge Unlimited 179 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?
- A. Incident Response, Notification and Remediation
- B. Information Governance
- C. Data Security and Encryption
- D. Compliance and Audit Management
- E. Infrastructure Security
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?
- A. Access control
- B. Authentication
- C. Entitlement
- D. Authoritative source
- E. Federated Identity Management
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which is the document used by Cloud Service Provider to declare the level of personal data protection and security that it sustains for the relevant data processing?
- A. Privacy Level Agreement(PLA)
- B. Service Level Agreement(SLA)
- C. Privacy Charter
- D. Contract
Answer: A
Explanation:
The PLA, as defined by the CSA, does the following Provides a clear and effective way to communicate the level of personal data protection offered by a service provider.
Works as a tool to assess the level of a service provider's compliance with data protection legislative requirements and leading practices Provides a way to offer contractual protection against possible financial damages due to lack of compliance
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is an assurance program and documentation registry for cloud provider assessments?
- A. CSA governance charter
- B. CSA Cloud Controls Matrix
- C. CSA Star
- D. CSA Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance STAR Registry is an assurance program and documentation registry or cloud provider assessments based on the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix and Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire. Some providers also disclose documentation for additional certifications and assessments(including self-assessments).
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)
NEW QUESTION # 50
Cloud customer can do vulnerability assessment of their whole infrastructure on cloud just like they conduct vulnerbility assessment of their traditional infrastructure.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
It is false.
Customer will have to take permission and give notification to cloud service provider.
The cloud owner (public or private) will typically require notification of assessments and place limits on the nature of assessments. This is because they may be unable to distinguish an assessment from a real attack without prior warning.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 51
Due to multi-tenancy nature of cloud. there is the possibility that data belonging to one customer will be read or received by another. This is known as:
- A. Data disclosure
- B. Wilful data disclosure
- C. Information Bleed
- D. Data dispersion
Answer: C
Explanation:
Information Bleed With multiple customers processing and storing data over the same infrastructure, there is the possibility that data belonging to one customer will be read or received by another.
Moreover, even if this does not happen with raw data, it might be possible for one customer to detect telltale information about another customer's activity, such as when the customer is processing data, how long the procedure takes, and so on.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following pair represents Storage used in IaaS infra-structure?
- A. CDN and Ephemeral
- B. Raw and long-term storage
- C. Structured and Unstructured Storage
- D. Volume and object storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
IaaS uses the following storage types:
Volume storage: A virtual hard drive that can be attached to a virtual machine instance and be used to host data within a file System, Volumes attached to IaaS instances behave just like a physical drive or an array does. Examples include VMware Virtua Machine File System(VMFS), Amazon Elastic Block Store(EBS), RackSpace Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID), and OpenStack Cinder.
Object storage: Similar to a file share accessed via APIs or a web interface. Examples include Amazon S3 and Rackspace cloud files.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following Standards is normally followed to manage Enterprise Risk?
- A. ISO 27001
- B. ISO 31000
- C. ISO 27032
- D. ISO 27005
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO 31000 provides principles and guidelines to do Enterprise Risk Management.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Application security is a shared responsibility between cloud service provider between cloud service provider and cloud customer Platform as a Service(PaaS) model.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
It is false.
This type of question is there to confuse students. Although, we do develop applications on platform provided, its security is total responsibility of the cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Select the best definition of "compliance" from the options below.
- A. The timely and efficient filing of security reports.
- B. The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.
- C. The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.
- D. The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.
- E. The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 57
Code execution environments that run within an operating system. sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system. are known as:
- A. Nodes
- B. VMs
- C. Containers
- D. Host
Answer: C
Explanation:
Containers are code execution environments that run within an operating system(for now), sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system. While a VM is a full abstraction of an operating system, a container is a constrained place to run segregated processes while still utilizing the kernel and other capabilities of the base 0S.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 58
Whose responsibility is to maintain security incident and event management(SIEM) capabilities in PaaS (Platform as a Service) model?
- A. Cloud Customer
- B. Cloud Access Security Broker
- C. Cloud Carrier
- D. Cloud Service provider
Answer: D
Explanation:
In forms of service models, it is cloud service provider's responsibility to maintain security incident and event management(SIEM) capabilities
NEW QUESTION # 59
What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?
- A. Management plane
- B. Administrative access
- C. Cloud dashboard
- D. Identity and Access Management
- E. Single sign-on
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?
- A. To simplify the deployment of virtual machines
- B. To ensure high availability and load balancing
- C. To reduce costs associated with physical hardware
- D. To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure
Answer: D
Explanation:
Agile security approaches allow organizations to adapt to the rapid changes and emerging threats characteristic of cloud environments. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 4 - Organization Management]
NEW QUESTION # 61
How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?
- A. It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.
- B. It consolidates logs into a single location.
- C. It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.
- D. It automatically resolves all detected security threats.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Centralized logging aggregates logs in one location, making it easier to monitor, analyze, and comply with regulatory requirements. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 6 - Security Monitoring]
NEW QUESTION # 62
What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?
- A. Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.
- B. Both B and D.
- C. Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.
- D. Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.
- E. Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 63
APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which is the correct sequence of Cloud Data lifecycle phases?
- A. Create, Use, Share, Store, Archive, Destroy
- B. Create, Share, Use, Store, Archive, Destroy
- C. Create, Use, Store, Archive, Share, Destroy
- D. Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct order of data lifecycle is Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?
- A. Complex deployment pipelines
- B. Misconfigurations
- C. Limited scalability
- D. High operational costs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Serverless environments are vulnerable to misconfigurations, which can expose sensitive data and resources, making security configurations critical. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 8 - Cloud Workload Security]
NEW QUESTION # 66
What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?
- A. You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.
- B. You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.
- C. You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.
- D. You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.
- E. You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following is key benefit of private cloud model?
- A. Less expensive
- B. Distributed data location
- C. Assurance of Data Location
- D. Off-loading IT Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
One of the key challenges in cloud computing is its distributed environment and dispersed data centers across the globe. It is very difficult to trace data location in public clouds.
Therefore. Assurance of data location is key advantage of private cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 68
How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?
- A. It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.
- B. It consolidates logs into a single location.
- C. It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.
- D. It automatically resolves all detected security threats.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Centralized logging aggregates logs in one location, making it easier to monitor, analyze, and comply with regulatory requirements. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 6 - Security Monitoring]
NEW QUESTION # 69
Private cloud model can be managed by third party who may not be part of the organization served by that private cloud.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is true
This is a tricky question that you should look into carefully. Main purpose of private cloud is usage by one organization (use) but it can be managed by third party as well.
Definition: Private cloud
According to NIST, "the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organisation comprising multiple consumers (e.g, business units). It may be owned, managed, and operated by the organisation, a third party or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises. "
NEW QUESTION # 70
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